CCA License Review counselor Education and Testing Centers

 

Free Sample Questions

These questions are also included in our simulator

1. Taking into consideration that the common feature of the somatoform disorders is the presence of physical symptoms that suggest a general medical condition, what of the following statements regarding Factitious Disorders is incorrect?

A.      Malingering and Factitious Disorder both involve the intentional production

B.      In Factitious Disorder, panic attacks are often mistaken for heart attacks

C.      In Malingering, the individual has an external incentive (money, getting out of work, etc.) that he/she hopes to achieve by his/her presentation

D.     In Factitious Disorder, there is no apparent external motivation for the faking other than to receive medical attention.

 

Answer: B
Explanation: Panic attack: panic attacks are often mistaken for heart attacks, and medical assessment of cardiovascular status should be completed before beginning a psychologically-based intervention for panic symptoms. (no reference to Factitious Disorder/ Malingering Disorder).

 

2. While Conditioned Response (CR) is the learned response to a conditioned stimulus, what is it that is called ACQUISITION?

A.                  a negative conditioned stimulus is paired with a pleasant stimulus that elicits a response that is incompatible with the unwanted conditioned response

B.                   learning to make distinctions among similar stimuli

C.                  the recurrence of the previously extinguished conditioned response following a rest period

D.                 the period during which the organism learns the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Acquisition – the period during which the organism learns the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response.

 

3. Taking into consideration that Vineland Social Maturity Scale asses an individual's competency in taking personal responsibility and in seeing to practical needs, what is the purpose of Peabody Picture Vocabulary?

A. It is for use with the severely handicapped, ages 2.5 to 18 years of age.

B. an individually administered mental-ability test that requires no verbal response and a minimum of motor response on the child's part

2. Assesses hearing-impaired children ages 3 to 16 years of age
3. used for children and adults as a behavior rating scale for the mentally retarded, emotionally maladjusted, developmentally disabled, and other handicapped persons

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Peabody Picture Vocabulary: for use with the severely handicapped, ages 2.5 to 18 years of age.

 

4. If Cathexis is the process by which sources of energy are tied to thoughts, actions, objects, or people, what is the source of all basic drives as people progress through the stages of life?

A. mental energy

B. chemical rebound

C. physiologic energy

D. biological energy

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Biological energy is the source of all basic drives as people progress through the stages of life.

 

5. TAKING INTO CONSIDERATION THAT Vineland Social Maturity Scale is assesing an individual's competency in taking personal responsibility and in seeing to practical needs, what is the Hiskey-Nebraska Test doing?

A. used for children and adults as a behavior rating scale for the mentally retarded, emotionally maladjusted, developmentally disabled, and other handicapped persons

2. Assesses hearing-impaired children ages 3 to 16 years of age
3. an individually administered mental-ability test that requires no verbal response and a minimum of motor response on the child's part
4. It is used with those ages 2 – 18 and yields mental age scores and ratio IQs

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Hiskey-Nebraska: Assesses hearing-impaired children ages 3 to 16 years of age.

 

6. Luke spends 16 hours a day practicing for a big game and as a result he neglects his wife and children quite often. According to Freud's System of Personality, what part of the personality system (process) is responsible for the guilty feelings that result from the violation of the standards and morals set?

A. Id

B. Ego

C.  Libido

D. Superego

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Guilty feelings result from a violation of the standards and morals set by the superego.

 

7. A topographical concept states that the personality has a conscious mind, a preconscious mind, and an unconscious mind. By what stage is the human personality determined?

1. In the adolescence
2. When a person is 21
3. In the first five years of life
4. When a person is 18

 

Answer: C

Explanation: As a stage theorist, Freud postulated that the human personality is determined in the most critical years of personal development - the first five years of life.

 

8. If a person can not pass emotionally from oral to anal stage, because of what factor is the emotional development “stuck”?

A.    The person didn’t received the needed affection

B.     The cathexis was not strong enough

C.     The person has experienced too much pain

D.    The fixation was not intense enough

 

Answer: C

Explanation: taking into consideration that a person experiences either too much pain (trauma) or too much pleasure at any given stage, he/she may resist letting go of that stage. Cognitive and physical development occurs, but emotional development is “stuck”.

 

9. Taking into consideration that the Gesell Development Schedules is best used to identify early neurological defects and organically caused behavioral problems, what do McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities measure in children of 2.6 to 8.6 years ages?

A. Perceptual-Performance Scale

B. the developmental progress of a child

C. verbal and nonverbal cognition

D. cognitive and motor development

 

Answer: D

Explanation: McCarthy Scales of Children's Abilities measure the cognitive and motor development of children ages 2.6 to 8.6 years of age.

10.  Taking into consideration Rackets can be defined as a habitual feeling that is clung to after a game, what are the Life Scripts?

A.      a habitual feeling (depression, guilt, anger)

B.      messages, both verbal and nonverbal and usually negative, that let a child know what to do to gain recognition

C.      conclusions about self and life reached by age 5 aimed at survival, recognition, and attention

D.     personal life plan born out of early decisions about self, others, and the world

Answer: D

Explanation: Life Scripts – personal life plan born out of early decisions about self, others, and the world.

 

11. Considering that Rackets are a habitual feeling that is clung to after a game, what is Stroking?

A.      messages, both verbal and nonverbal and usually negative, that let a child know what to do to gain recognition

B.      any recognition whether positive, negative, conditional, or unconditional personal life plan born out of early decisions about self, others, and the world

C.      conclusions about self and life reached by age 5 aimed at survival, recognition

D.     conclusions about self and life reached by age 5 aimed at survival, recognition, and attention

Answer: B

Explanation: Stroking – any recognition whether positive, negative, conditional, or unconditional.

 

12. If in Step 1 (STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS OF THE PERSONALITY), the client examines the content and functioning of the three ego states, what does the Complementary transaction of Step 2 (TRANSACTIONAL ANALYSIS) include?

A.     a sent message receives an unexpected response

B.      the overt message is different from the covert message

C.      Examines transactions that result in negative feelings

D.     specific ego state sends a message, a specific state responds

Answer: D

Explanation: Complementary – a specific ego state sends a message, a specific state responds

 

 

13. TAKING INTO CONSIDERATION THAT Vineland Social Maturity Scale asseses an individual's competency in taking personal responsibility and in seeing to practical needs, what is the purpose of AAMR Adaptive Behavior Scale?

A.            an individually administered mental-ability test that requires no verbal response and a minimum of motor response on the child's part

B.            Assesses hearing-impaired children ages 3 to 16 years of age

C.            It is used with those ages 2 – 18 and yields mental age scores and ratio IQs

D.           used for children and adults as a behavior rating scale for the mentally retarded, emotionally maladjusted, developmentally disabled, and other handicapped persons

 

Answer: D

Explanation: AAMR Adaptive Behavior Scale: used for children and adults as a behavior rating scale for the mentally retarded, emotionally maladjusted, developmentally disabled, and other handicapped persons.

 

14. TAKING INTO CONSIDERATION THAT Vineland Social Maturity Scale asses an individual's competency in taking personal responsibility and in seeing to practical needs, what is the purpose of Columbia Mental Maturity Scale?

A. used for children and adults as a behavior rating scale for the mentally retarded, emotionally maladjusted, developmentally disabled, and other handicapped persons

2. Assesses hearing-impaired children ages 3 to 16 years of age
3. It is used with those ages 2 – 18 and yields mental age scores and ratio IQs
4. an individually administered mental-ability test that requires no verbal response and a minimum of motor response on the child's part

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Columbia Mental Maturity Scale: an individually administered mental-ability test that requires no verbal response and a minimum of motor response on the child's part

 

 

15. The three periods of accelerated physical growth are infancy, early childhood, and adolescence. What percentage of adult weight and size does an infant brain have at his birth?

1. 25%
2. 5%
3. 3%
4. 15%

 

Answer: A

Explanation: At birth, the brain is only 25 percent of its adult weight and size.

16. During the embryonic (second through eighth weeks) and fetal stages (last seven months on average) of pregnancy, maternal characteristics and external environmental forces (teratogens) have a major effect on the baby’s development. What future mothers are in high risk of giving birth to a child with Down syndrome?

1. Mothers over 30
2. Adolescent mothers
3. Mothers over 22
4. Mothers over 27

 

Answer: A
Explanation: Mothers over 30 have an increased risk of delivering a Down syndrome baby. Also, infertility rates increase.

 

17.   A habit is a stereotyped, predictable pattern of responding; a complex act that consists of several chains of S-R connections. Which of the following sentences is about Habit’s fatigue method d?

A.      Present the stimulus that produces an undesirable response but present it at such a level that the undesired response is not emitted.

B.      Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response.

C.      Present the stimulus at such a time that the response cannot occur.

D.     the particular response that we choose to measure

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Fatigue Method: Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response. Once this occurs, a new response will replace the old response.

18.   If maturity is the living out of the results of the pre-genital (oral, anal, and phallic) and genital stages, what is specific for the oral stage?

A.      The first experience of "imposed control"

B.      Pleasure is derived from nursing and sucking

C.      Pleasure is derived from fondling genitals

D.     Children observe the differences between males and females

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Oral stage (0-2 years): Pleasure is derived from nursing and sucking. Infants will put everything into their mouths.

 

19.   Taking into consideration that a 17 years old boy has a 50-70 Iq score, what type of mental retardation is he suffering of and is it curable/educable?

1. Mild/educable
2. Moderate/trainable
3. Severe, incurable
4. Moderate, educable

 

Answer: D

Explanation: With a 50-70 IQ score, a person suffers of Mild mental retardation and it is educable.

 

 

20. According to Principles Underlying Guthrie’s Law of Learning, learning occurs in an all-or-nothing fashion.  What happens in case of Classical Conditioning regarding Comparative View of Practice?

A.  Repeatedly pairing the CS and UCS strengthens the CR.

B. The UCS functions as a reinforcer

C. Repeated trials result in repeated pairings of the CS and the UCS.

D.  CS results in a CR

Answer: C

Explanation: Classical Conditioning – Repeated trials result in repeated pairings of the CS and the UCS. Repeated conditioning trials result in stronger CRs.

21. Taking into consideration that MOTIVATION is the social or psychological condition that directs one's behavior toward a certain goal, how can be the PHOBIA defined?

1. strong, irrational fear of a specific object or situation
2. the branch of medicine dealing with the classification of disease
3.  “slave” state which occurs as an inevitable accompaniment
4. the course of development of an organism or an individual

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Phobia – a strong, irrational fear of a specific object or situation. Note that anxiety, on the other hand, is considered more generalized and without a known cause.

 

22.  Taking into consideration that the Psychodynamic (Psychoanalytic) Model explains abnormality in terms of internal (intrapsychic, unconscious) dynamics at work within the individual, which of the following statements refers to Behavioral (Learning Theory) Model?

1. the cognitive-behavioral position emphasizes the role of mental factors to explain abnormality, primarily through cognitive distortions (Beck) or irrational thinking (Ellis)
2. abnormality in terms of internal dynamics at work within the individual
3. the human being as an organism made up of numerous biologic and biochemical systems which are primarily responsible for determining adjustment, behavior, and disorders
4. Applies the laws of learning, motivation, and conditioning to explain abnormality in terms of behavioral excesses and deficits.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Behavioral (Learning Theory) Model: applies the laws of learning, motivation, and conditioning to explain abnormality in terms of behavioral excesses and deficits.

 

23.   Exposure of a developing embryo or fetus to certain environmental factors can damage the developing organism or even cause death. What impact does the cigarette use of the mother have on the child?

1. reduced muscle tone
2. intelligence deficit
3. lower birth weights and pre-term births
4. skill deficit

 

Answer: C

Explanation: Cigarette smoking (nicotine) often causes lower birth weights and pre-term births.

 

24.   From two Weeks to Two Years Old (Referred to as Infancy or Babyhood), exhibit a gradual decrease in helplessness. What statement about this stage is irrelevant?

1. At about 8 months, infants realize that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight
2. Children exhibit a gradual decrease in helplessness.
3.  Bonding/attachment takes place
4. Morality is by constraint

 

Answer: A

Explanation: At about 18 months, infants realize that objects continue to exist even when they are out of sight (Object Permanence).

 

25.   Taking into consideration that Ann’s parents are keeping hands off and letting children "be themselves" with the hope that this will encourage the child to become self-reliant and develop initiative, how is their parenting style called?

1. Authoritarian
2. Authoritative
3. Hostile
4. Permissive

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Permissive – This style of parenting adopts the policy of keeping hands off and letting children "be themselves" with the hope that this will encourage the child to become self-reliant and develop initiative.

 

26.  Taking into consideration that the Psychodynamic (Psychoanalytic) Model explains abnormality in terms of internal (intrapsychic, unconscious) dynamics at work within the individual, which of the following statements refers to Diathesis-Stress Model?

1. the cognitive-behavioral position emphasizes the role of mental factors to explain abnormality, primarily through cognitive distortions (Beck) or irrational thinking (Ellis)
2. the human being as an organism made up of numerous biologic and biochemical systems which are primarily responsible for determining adjustment, behavior, and disorders
3. Emphasizes the combination of nature (biology and genetics) and nurture (the environment) to produce abnormality.
4. Argues that disorders occur in systems (e.g. the family) rather than in individuals and emphasizes concepts of homoeostasis, individual roles within systems, and poor communication patterns

Answer: C

Explanation: Diathesis-Stress Model emphasizes the combination of nature (biology and genetics) and nurture (the environment) to produce abnormality.

 

27.   Susan was just diagnosed with Borderline Personality Disorder. On what symptoms criteria did the doctors diagnosed her?

1. a pattern of excessive emotionality and attention seeking
2. an inflated or grandiose sense of self; expects others to see them as specially gifted
3. so highly sensitive to criticism and rejection that they may refuse to enter into social relationships
4. She exhibits abrupt shifts in mood, has a poorly developed selfimage, and demonstrates intense and unstable relationships

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Borderline Personality Disorder: patient exhibits abrupt shifts in mood, has a poorly developed self-image, and demonstrates intense and unstable relationships.

 

 

28.   At the Presocial/Symbiotic Stage of ego development, the infant cannot initially distinguish between self and nonself. At what stage is the child showing impulsive, exploitive, dependent and sexual and aggressive drives are predominant?

A.                  Non-Conformist Stage

B.                  Opportunistic Stage

C.                  Autonomous Stage

D.                 Impulsive Stage

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Impulsive Stage – The child distinguishes self from the mother. The child is impulsive, exploitive, and dependent. Sexual and aggressive drives are predominant.

29.  Taking into consideration that Nosology is the branch of medicine dealing with the classification of disease, how can be the DOWN SYNDROME defined according to it?

1. the biological condition directing behavior toward a goal
2. the automatic repetition by someone of words spoken in his or her presence
3. the graphic measure of the alpha waves of the brain
4. the classification of mental retardation that is caused by an extra chromosome; sometimes called mongolism

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Down's Syndrome – the classification of mental retardation that is caused by an extra chromosome; sometimes called mongolism.

 

30.  Taking into consideration that Social Theories specify how features of the social structure that is external to an individual produce observable patterns of drug-using behavior, how can the Psychological Theories be defined?

1. drug use is an aberrant phenomenon afflicting otherwise healthy people
2. Emphasizes the orderly progression from one drug to another as young people get more involved in drug use.
3. Believes that each individual has the right to use drugs as he/she sees fit and that society should have a hands-off policy.
4. Examine the individual's personality and psychopathology to explain drug abuse as a maladaptive behavior.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Psychological Theories – Examine the individual's personality and psychopathology to explain drug abuse as a maladaptive behavior.

 

31.  Kids think in two distinct ways about moral issues, depending on their developmental maturity (Children’s Sense of Morality). What Autonomous morality?

A.                  the incorporation of old ideas or old habits with new objects thus providing a new event

B.                  the second stage and begins at about age 10: children begin to realize that rules are created by people and that intentions and consequences can be taken into consideration

C.                  the adjusting to a new object or new information; the changing of one’s conceptions to fit the new object

D.                 the first stage and occurs from approximately ages 4 to7: rules and justice are viewed as absolutes; they cannot be changed by people

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Autonomous morality is the second stage and begins at about age 10. Children begin to realize that rules are created by people and that intentions and consequences can be taken into consideration.

 

32.  Equilibration is the devising/forming of new theories in order to realize balance between assimilation and accommodation. What happens taking into consideration that the child’s current schemas cannot process new information?

A.                 Mental growth occurs

B.                  Heteronomous morality is reestablished

C.                  Autonomous morality is destroyed

D.                 Disequilibrium occurs

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Disequilibrium occurs when the child’s current schemas cannot process new information. The child changes the schemas and equilibration or equilibrium is reestablished.

 

33.   “Language acquisition to be the chief milestone in cognitive development (Bruner).” Taking into consideration that this statement is true, what does the ENACTIVE MODE imply?

1. Knowledge is based heavily on images which stand for perceptual
2. Language provides the means for representing experience and for transforming it.
3. development is the result of one’s adapting to other people and objects
4. Objects have meaning only with respect to the actions performed on them

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Enactive mode – Objects have meaning only with respect to the actions performed on them.

 

34.   One of the eight developmental tasks that adolescent development encompasses is occupational selection and preparation. What can be defined as a task of the Early Adulthood stage?

A.                   Manage career

B.                  Accept life

C.                  Coping with physical changes

D.                 Explore intimate relationships and start a family

 

Answer: D

Explanation: The tasks in the Early Adulthood Stage are exploring intimate relationships and start a family, begin a career and find a compatible social group.

 

35.  According to Masters& Johnson, there are four-stage cycles both in men and women regarding sexual responses. Which of the following statements is characterizing the Plateau Phase?

1. Initiated by whatever is stimulating to the person; heart, respiration, and blood pressure rates increase.
2. The body changes resulting from stimulation reaching maximum intensity.
3. Muscles in female and male sexual organs contract rhythmically.
4. The tension prepares the body for orgasm.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Plateau Phase – The tension prepares the body for orgasm. There is increased stimulation of the body parts and functions.

 

36.   Considering that cognitive development is influenced by such factors as culture, evolution, integration, and language, what impact can have the technical advances on a human being?

1. technology causes diminished use of brain potential
2. technology is the means by which such plans are generated, not the other way around
3. shape the development of intellectual functioning
4. alloplastic view

 

Answer: C

Explanation: ‘Technical advances shape the development of intellectual functioning. He sites as evidence the fact that people think differently in our technically advanced culture as compared with the thinking of a few centuries ago. Even during the same time period, more sophisticated cultures think differently than less sophisticated ones.

 

37.  Gould (1978) links stage and crisis in his developmental transformations approach: false assumptions (myths) are challenged and transformed at every stage. What is the development at 43-53 years?

1. Awareness of mortality
2. May experience dissatisfaction in career or marriage
3. A general mellowing evolves with an increased tolerance
4. One’s life is accepted

 

Answer: D

Explanation: 43 – 53: One’s life is accepted. Realizes some things can’t be changed.

 

38.  Taking into consideration that MOTIVATION is the social or psychological condition that directs one's behavior toward a certain goal, how can be ONTOGENESIS defined?

1. the course of development of an organism or an individual
2. the branch of medicine dealing with the classification of disease
3. The conditions that arouse a motivational or an emotional state
4. “slave” state which occurs as an inevitable accompaniment

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Ontogenesis – the course of development of an organism or an individual.

 

39.  Cognitive development is influenced by such factors as culture, evolution, integration, and language. How can be the alloplastic view defined?

A.      development is the result of one’s adapting to other people and objects

B.      shape the development of intellectual functioning

C.      technology causes diminished use of brain potential

D.     technology is the means by which such plans are generated, not the other way around

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Alloplastic view: development is the result of one’s adapting to other people and objects.

40.  If a woman over the age of 35 who have been out of the labor force for an extended period of time is characterized as a . Displaced Homemaker, how can a Job Satisfaction be defined?

A.      dominant motivational pattern or thrust which comes from a particular interest, ability, or personality trait exhibited by a person

B.      People who have lost jobs due to changes in corporate structure (downsizing, mergers, or acquisitions).

C.      The underemployed

D.     The lack of ability to execute or perform customary roles and common daily endeavors as the result of impairment

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Job Satisfaction (Miller and Mattson) – results when one's work choice is consistent with the dominant motivational pattern or thrust which comes from a particular interest, ability, or personality trait exhibited by a person. Such consistency yields job satisfaction. Lack of consistency produces burnout.

 

 

41.  Considering that JOB can be defined as a group of similar positions in a particular work setting, how can be LEISURE defined?

A.      group of jobs so similar in nature that a person successful in one could move to another without great difficulty

B.      a displaced female worker who is reentering the job force

C.      a person is confronted by a demand that is perceived to exceed the emotional or the physical resources available to effectively respond to it

D.     Time free from required effort or for the free use of abilities and pursuit of interests

Answer: D

Explanation: Leisure – Time free from required effort or for the free use of abilities and pursuit of interests.

 

42.  Considering that JOB can be defined as a group of similar positions in a particular work setting, how can be Occupation defined?

A.      Time free from required effort or for the free use of abilities and pursuit of interests

B.      a displaced female worker who is reentering the job force

C.      a person is confronted by a demand that is perceived to exceed the emotional or the physical resources available to effectively respond to it

D.     group of jobs so similar in nature that a person successful in one could move to another without great difficulty

Answer: D

Explanation: Occupation – a group of jobs so similar in nature that a person successful in one could move to another without great difficulty.

 

 

43.  Elkind agrees that mass is the first and most easily understood concept; weight is second, and volume is third. To what does the PERSONAL FABLE CONCEPT refer to?

A.       the belief that others are as preoccupied with the adolescent as the adolescent is with himself or herself

B.       the understanding that events take place one after the other

C.       the understanding that the adolescent can cause something to happen

D.     adolescent’s belief that his/her individual experiences are unique, that no one has ever felt or thought like he/she does

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Personal fable – Part of the adolescent’s egocentrism; adolescent’s belief that his/her individual experiences are unique, that no one has ever felt or thought like he/she does.

 

44.  During the embryonic (second through eighth weeks) and fetal stages (last seven months on average) of pregnancy, maternal characteristics and external environmental forces (teratogens) have a major effect on the baby’s development. What mothers are in increased risk to giving birth to a child with Down syndrome?

A. Adolescent mothers

B.      Mothers over 22

C.      Mothers over 27

D.     Mothers over 30

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Mothers over 30 have an increased risk of delivering a Down syndrome baby. Also, infertility rates increase.

 

45.  If electronic email can be used for counseling; marketing; screening; client/counselor correspondences for scheduling, inter-session monitoring and post-therapeutic follow-up, what for can Databases/FTP sites be used?

A.      counseling; homework; referrals; and consultation

B.      consultation; referrals; resources for information; and professional collegiality

C.      supervision and skills training

D.     research; information resources for counselors; self-help libraries; client record transfers; and assessment and analyses

Answer: D

Explanation: Databases/FTP sites – research; information resources for counselors; self-help libraries; client record transfers; and assessment and analyses.

46.  If electronic email can be used for counseling; marketing; screening; client/counselor correspondences for scheduling, inter-session monitoring and post-therapeutic follow-up, what for can Chat rooms/electronic discussion groups be used?

A.      group counseling; self-help; and support

B.      research; information resources for counselors; self-help libraries; client record transfers; and assessment and analyses

C.      counseling; homework; referrals; and consultation

D.     consultation; referrals; resources for information; and professional collegiality

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Chat rooms/electronic discussion groups – group counseling; self-help; and support

 

47.  According to Astin’s theory, there are four constructs in a woman’s Need-Based Socio-Psychological Model of career choice and work behavior. How can Motivation be defined?

A.      social norms and values are inculcated through play, family, school, and early work experiences

B.      economic conditions

C.       the job market

D.     the form of three primary needs

Answer: D

Explanation: Motivation in the form of three primary needs (survival, pleasure, and contribution) is the same for both sexes. Work-defined activity intended to produce or accomplish something has the capacity to satisfy these needs.

48.  According to Astin’s theory, there are four constructs in a woman’s Need-Based Socio-Psychological Model of career choice and work behavior. How can Sex-role socialization be defined?

A.      the form of three primary needs

B.      economic conditions

C.       the job market

D.     social norms and values are inculcated through play, family, school, and early work experiences

Answer: D

Explanation: Sex-role socialization, whereby social norms and values are inculcated through play, family, school, and early work experiences.

 

 

49.  Taking into consideration that it can be assumed that growth is cephalocaudal and proximodistal, which of the following statements is correct?

1. By age 1, the brain is at 80 percent of its adult weight.
2. By age 12, the brain has reached its adult size and weight.
3. By age 90, the brain has shrunk about 20 percent from its size at age 30.
4.  From birth to about age 18, the cerebral cortex develops allowing higher-level cognitive functions and complex motor activities.

 

Answer: C

Explanation: By age 90, the brain has shrunk about 20 percent from its size at age 30.

 

50.   Taking into consideration that Epinephrine and norepinephrine are associated with stress reactions, what is the function of Serotonin?

1. Associated with stress reactions.
2. Allows the transmission of impulses across the synapse.
3. Affects neurons in the corpus stratum.
4. Associated with sleep disturbances.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Serotonin – Associated with sleep disturbances.

51.   The personal constructs is based on the belief that an individual’s own concepts or constructs are created by the individual in an effort to understand the individual environment. What is an important determinant of one’s decisions and behavior?

1.  Classical Conditioning
2. Constructive alternativism
3. One-Shot Learning
4. Extinction or Forgetting

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Constructive alternativism is an important determinant of one’s decisions and behavior.

 

52.  According to Masters& Johnson, there are four-stage cycles both in men and women regarding sexual responses. How can be the EXCITEMENT PHASE defined?

1. The tension prepares the body for orgasm.
2. The body changes resulting from stimulation reaching maximum intensity.
3. Muscles in female and male sexual organs contract rhythmically.
4. Initiated by whatever is stimulating to the person; heart, respiration, and blood pressure rates increase.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Excitement Phase – Initiated by whatever is stimulating to the person; heart, respiration, and blood pressure rates increase. Erection and engorgements occur.

 

53.   Taking into consideration that a child is preoccupied with social acceptance, appearance, and material possessions, at what ego development sequence is he?

A.                   Conscientious Stage

B.                  Autonomous Stage

C.                  Integrated Stage

D.                 Conformist Stage

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Conformist Stage – Rules are partially internalized. Transgression results in shame. Trust develops. The child is preoccupied with social acceptance, appearance, and material possessions.

 

54.  Assuming that there are 4 major developmental stages that have effects on occupational aspirations, how can be the stage between 3-5 ages defined? (Gottfredson theory)

A.      Orientation of sex roles

B.      Orientation to social valuation

C.      Orientation to the internal, unique self

D.     Orientation to size and power

Answer: D
Explanation: Stage 1: Orientation to size and power (ages 3-5)

55.  Assuming that there are 4 major developmental stages that have effects on occupational aspirations, how can be the stage between 6-8 ages defined? (Gottfredson theory)

A.      Orientation to size and power

B.      Orientation to social valuation

C.      Orientation to the internal, unique self

D.     Orientation of sex roles

Answer: D

Explanation: Stage 2: Orientation of sex roles (ages 6-8)

 

56.  Assuming that there are 4 major developmental stages that have effects on occupational aspirations, how can be the stage between 9-13 ages defined? (Gottfredson theory)

A.      Orientation to size and power

B.      Orientation of sex roles

C.      Orientation to the internal, unique self

D.     Orientation to social valuation

Answer: D

Explanation: Stage 3: Orientation to social valuation (ages 9-13)

57.  Assuming that there are 4 major developmental stages that have effects on occupational aspirations, how can be the stage between 14-14+ ages defined? (Gottfredson theory)

A.      Orientation to the internal, unique self

B.      Orientation to size and power

C.      Orientation of sex roles

D.     Orientation to social valuation

 

Answer: A
Explanation: Stage 4: Orientation to the internal, unique self (ages 14 +)

Perception of self and others.

 

 

58.  Taking into consideration that Paranoid Schizophrenia involves an organized delusional system or theme such as persecution, what is the Schizophreniform Disorder?

A.      replicates the Schizophrenia criteria but covers a duration of symptom presence between one and six months

B.      It involves exclusive psychotic symptoms of delusions, but these are differentiated from Schizophrenia by being labeled “nonbizzare.”

C.      involves the simultaneous presentation of a Schizophrenic and a Mood Disorder

D.     involves many of the odd and eccentric characteristics of Schizophrenia without presentation of the major clinical criteria

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Schizophreniform Disorder also replicates the Schizophrenia criteria but covers a duration of symptom presence between one and six months.

59.  ‘Spontaneous Recovery is the recurrence of the previously extinguished conditioned response following a rest period. What is Counter-conditioning?

A.       the reduction in response that occurs when the conditioned stimulus is presented without the unconditioned stimulus

B.      the showing of a given behavior toward similar stimuli once an organism has learned to associate a given behavior with a specific stimulus

C.      the occurrence of one event is dependent (contingent) upon the occurrence of another event; this dependency relationship is foundational to classical conditioning

D.     a negative conditioned stimulus is paired with a pleasant stimulus that elicits a response that is incompatible with the unwanted conditioned response

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Counter-conditioning – a negative conditioned stimulus is paired with a pleasant stimulus that elicits a response that is incompatible with the unwanted conditioned response.

 

60.  Considering that Semantic Differential is a direct method of attitude measurement in which one assesses the connotative or personal meaning of an object, how can be Social Facilitation defined?

A.     direct method of attitude measurement in which one assesses the connotative or personal meaning of an object

B.      the effects of individual performance on the presence of other individuals

C.      financial markets, international law, and other elements that transcend national culture

D.     the study of a person‟s perception and use of personal and interpersonal space

Answer: A
Explanation: Social Facilitation – the effects of individual performance on the presence of other individuals.

61.  Considering that Semantic Differential is a direct method of attitude measurement in which one assesses the connotative or personal meaning of an object, how can be Third cultures defined?

A.      the effects of individual performance on the presence of other individuals

B.      the study of a person‟s perception and use of personal and interpersonal space

C.      direct method of attitude measurement in which one assesses the connotative or personal meaning of an object

D.     financial markets, international law, and other elements that transcend national culture

Answer: D

Explanation: Third cultures – refer to financial markets, international law, and other elements that transcend national culture.

62.  The Exposure of a developing embryo to certain environmental factors can damage the developing organism and even cause death. What impact can Maternal Diseases have on a delivering mother?

A.      can cause birth defects

B.      infant brain damage

C.      acquired immune deficiency syndrome

D.     can produce defects by crossing the placental barrier

Answer: D

Explanation: Maternal Diseases – Maternal diseases or infections can produce defects by crossing the placental barrier.

63.  The Specificity of the stimulus in case of CLASSICAL CONDITIONING is that a specific stimulus results in a particular response. What is the operant conditioning in this case?

A.      The response occurs prior to the effect (reward)

B.       The response is elicited.

C.       A substitution in stimuli does not take place

D.     No specific stimulus produces a particular response.

Answer: D

Explanation: Specificity of the stimulus: Classical Conditioning: A specific stimulus results in a particular response. Operant conditioning: No specific stimulus produces a particular response.

64.  According to Erikson’s developmental theory, there are eight psycho-social stages which unfold with continuity over the life span as the individual endeavors to attain a mature sense of identity. At what developmental stage does the Intimacy vs. Isolation Psycho-social Crisis occur?

A.      Middle childhood

B.      Adolescence

C.      Middle adulthood

D.     Early adulthood

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Early adulthood:- Intimacy vs. isolation. Sharing one’s life with others vs. I’m the only one I can depend on.

 

65.  If Modeling” or the acquiring of learning through observation occurs through four processes, what can happen during the MOTIVATION process?

A.      Reinforcement, either internal/self-reinforcement or external, is required for behavior to be retained and regularly manifested

B.      Learning does not occur by exposure alone

C.      The learner must have the capacity to recall his or her memory of the modeled behavior

D.      The learner uses memory to guide an actual performance of the behavior.

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Motivation – Reinforcement, either internal/self-reinforcement or external, is required for behavior to be retained and regularly manifested.

 

66.  In a grandmother, old age caused an impaired contact with reality. Which one of the following terms characterizes her situation?

A.      Self-fulfilling Prophecy

B.      Retrieval

C.      REM

D.     Senile psychosis

Answer: D

Explanation: Senile psychosis – mental disorder in which old age causes an impaired contact with reality; more loosely may refer to memory loss.

 

 

67.  Piaget’s observation of children playing games led him to conclude that children think in two distinct ways about moral issues, depending on their developmental maturity. What can be said about children between the age of 7 and 10?

A.      Children view rules and justice are as absolutes; they cannot be changed by people

B.      Children begin to realize that rules are created by people and that intentions and consequences can be taken into consideration.

C.       Children incorporate old ideas or old habits with new objects thus providing a new event

D.     Children are thought to be in transition and will exhibit some features of both stages

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Children between 7 and 10 are thought to be in transition and will exhibit some features of both stages.

 

68.  Taking into consideration that penetrance is the genetic transfer of mental illness or other characteristics from one generation to another, how are the parallel levels of symptoms across family members called?

A.      concordance

B.      prevalence

C.      covalence

D.     incidence

 

Answer: A

Explanation: concordance – parallel levels of symptoms across family members

 

69.  In case of CLASSICAL CONDITIONING Stimulus response sequence, the stimulus precedes the response. What happens in case of OPERANT CONDITIONING in this sequence?

A.      The response is emitted.

B.       A substitution in stimuli does not take place.

C.      Goal-seeking activity is primarily involved

D.     The response occurs prior to the effect (reward)

 

Answer: D

Explanation: OPERANT

CONDITIONING: The response occurs prior to the effect (reward).

(Child tries to help you. You either say “Thank you” or

“Just leave me alone.”)

 

70.   Taking into consideration that a person is suffering of Paranoid Schizophrenia, what does his behavior involve?

1.  a primary disturbance of self-care habits or language
2.  a primary disruption of motor functioning, either to excess (agitated movement) or to near-paralysis
3. the clinician is unable to successfully classify the patient’s symptoms into any of the preceding subtype descriptions
4. an organized delusional system or theme such as persecution

 

Answer: D

Explanation: the clinician is unable to successfully classify the patient’s symptoms into any of the preceding subtype descriptions.

 

71.  A habit is a stereotyped, predictable pattern of responding; a complex act that consists of several chains of S-R connections. How can be an act defined?

1.  any behavior that results in an habit
2. stimulus that produces an undesirable response but present it at such a level that the undesired response is not emitted
3. the particular response that we choose to measure
4.  Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response

 

Answer: C

Explanation: To Guthrie, an act is the particular response to that we choose to measure.

 

72.  Taking into consideration that Epinephrine and norepinephrine are associated with stress reactions, what is the function of Epinephrine and norepinephrine?

1. Associated with sleep disturbances.
2. Allows the transmission of impulses across the synapse.
3. Affects neurons in the corpus stratum.
4. Associated with stress reactions.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Epinephrine and norepinephrine – Associated with stress reactions.

 

73.  Mental growth comes as an individual deals with the inconsistencies (the tension) between his/her assimilation and accommodation. How is the quality of not being able to view an object from another’s vantage point called?

A.                  Reversibility

B.                  Egocentrism

 

C.                   Conservation

D.                  Centration

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Egocentrism – the quality of not being able to view an object from another’s vantage point.

 

74.  From birth to 4 months, an infant wages 10-18 pounds and has a length of 23-27 inches. What can be said about the social and emotional development at this age?

1. Shows fear of falling from high places
2. Smiles and pats at own reflection in mirror
3. Does not want mother to leave
4. Loves to be touched and held closely

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Social and Emotional Development: the infant loves to be touched and held closely, and among others, anticipates being lifted and bables, coos and gurgles.

 

75.  After being separated from her mom for 5 days, the baby shows DISORGANIZED ATTACHMENT behavior at the caregiver’s return. How can her behavior be more closely described?

1. The baby seems confused, may physically approach the mother but not look at her.
2.  The baby uses the mother as a secure base from which to explore the environment
3.  The baby ignores the caregiver, avoids direct contact.
4.  The baby resists the caregiver, perhaps kicks and pushes away.

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Disorganized attachment – The baby seems confused, may physically approach the mother but not look at her.

 

76.  After being separated from her mom for 13 days, the baby shows AVOIDANT ATTACHMENT behavior at the caregiver’s return. How can her behavior be more closely described?

1.  The baby uses the mother as a secure base from which to explore the environment
2. The baby resists the caregiver, perhaps kicks and pushes away.
3.  The baby seems confused, may physically approach the mother but not look at her.
4. The baby ignores the caregiver, avoids direct contact.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Avoidant attachment – The baby ignores the caregiver, avoids direct contact.

77.  During the embryonic (second through eighth weeks) and fetal stages (last seven months on average) of pregnancy, maternal characteristics and external environmental forces (teratogens) have a major effect on the baby’s development. What is the risk for adolescent mothers?

1. infertility
2. baby with Down syndrome
3. diabetes occurrence
4. premature babies

 

Answer: D

Explanation: ‘Adolescent mothers often have premature babies, and the mortality rate of infants born to adolescent mothers is double that of mothers in their twenties.

 

78.   For a 2 years old child, the toys are the focus until school tears begin at the age of 6. What is aggressive behavior influenced by?

1. Selfishness
2. Independence
3. Absence of the caregiver
4. the reinforcers used for the behavior

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Aggressive behavior is influenced by the reinforcers used for the behavior, the models of aggressive behavior seen by the child and the amount of guilt or anxiety associated with aggressive behavior.

 

79.  Taking into consideration that Tolerance refers to the need for ever increasingly larger doses of a drug to obtain the initial effect of the original dose, how can be the Dependence defined?

1. drug-produced condition characterized by both tolerance and dependence
2. pattern of behaviors wherein one is driven to use the drug and to act in ways that guarantee its availability
3. perceptual disorders, disrupted attentional impairment and disoriented person
4. the need for continued or repeated use of a drug in order to maintain a particular desired state which includes the avoidance of withdrawal

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Dependence refers to the need for continued or repeated use of a drug in order to maintain a particular desired state which includes the avoidance of withdrawal.

 

80.   A habit is a stereotyped, predictable pattern of responding; a complex act that consists of several chains of S-R connections. How can be the Habit’s threshold method defined?

 

A.      Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response.

B.      Present the stimulus at such a time that the response cannot occur.

C.      the particular response that we choose to measure

D.     Present the stimulus that produces an undesirable response but present it at such a level that the undesired response is not emitted.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Threshold Method – Present the stimulus that produces an undesirable response but present it at such a level that the undesired response is not emitted. Then increase the intensity of the stimulus (without the organism’s awareness) until a new response is emitted to the stimulus and thus replaces the old response.

 

81.  Taking into consideration that more males commit suicide than females, which of the following statement about females is correct?

A.      Females are more active

B.      Females show less self-regulation of behavior

C.      Females show less self-regulation of hormones

D.     More females attempt suicide than males.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: More females attempt suicide than males. Perhaps males are more successful because they will use more lethal means.

 

82.  H.F. Harlow looked at the bonding process or contact comfort using infant monkeys and cloth substitute mothers. What statement about this experiment is incorrect out of the following ones?

1. The fact that the mother provided food was enough to establish attachment
2. The researchers discovered that these infant monkeys became attached to terry cloth mothers.
3. They preferred artificial mothers that rocked over ones that did not move.
4.  The fact that the mother provided food was neither necessary nor enough to establish attachment.

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Statement D is incorrect because the fact that the mother provided food was neither necessary nor enough to establish attachment.

 

83.  Taking into consideration that Bob’s and Clara’s parenting style can be defined as Authoritative, what characteristics does it have?

1. parents have definite standards
2. Parents are keeping hands off and letting children "be themselves"
3. Parents have high self-esteem and high expectations
4. parents deliberately try to shape the behavior of the child according to their own standards of conduct

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Authoritative – This is the most effective form of parenting. The parents have definite standards, but they also encourage the child to be independent and will solicit the child's opinions at times.

 

84.  Taking into consideration that Epinephrine and norepinephrine are associated with stress reactions, what is the function of Acetylcholine?

1. Allows the transmission of impulses across the synapse.
2. Associated with sleep disturbances.
3. Associated with stress reactions.
4. Affects neurons in the corpus stratum.

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Acetylcholine – Allows the transmission of impulses across the synapse.

 

85.  A habit is a stereotyped, predictable pattern of responding; a complex act that consists of several chains of S-R connections. How can be the Habit’s fatigue method defined?

A.      Present the stimulus that produces an undesirable response but present it at such a level that the undesired response is not emitted.

B.      Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response.

C.      Present the stimulus at such a time that the response cannot occur.

D.     the particular response that we choose to measure

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Fatigue Method: Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response. Once this occurs, a new response will replace the old response.

 

 

86.   A teenage mother gives birth to a relatively healthy baby that experiences 3 weeks after the birth crib death. What might have most probably caused this problem?

1. Aspirin use
2. Rubella
3. AIDS
4. Barbiturates

 

Answer: D

Explanation: drug usage (marijuana, heroin, cocaine, amphetamines, barbiturates, etc.) compromises the health of both the mother and the baby and increases the risk of birth abnormalities, hyperirritability, crib death, spontaneous abortion (miscarriage), and still birth.

 

87.  Taking into consideration that Ambidexterity is the ability to use both hands with equal ease, how can be the Apgar rating defined?

1. unexplainable apprehension, fear, or dread; the cause cannot be determined
2. refers to how one thinks, acts behaviorally, and feels about a given subjec
3. study of attitude changes
4. a quantitative rating test used to measure the vital signs of newborns a minute or two after birth; a score of 7 indicates good health;

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Apgar rating or score – a quantitative rating test used to measure the vital signs of newborns a minute or two after birth; a score of 7 indicates good health; a score of 4 or less indicates that there is high-risk, and medical intervention is required.

 

 

 

88.  According to the constitutional personality theory (somatotyping) development occurs through a relationship between body types and temperaments. How can be the Mesomorphy body type defined?

1.  a long, stringy, skinny body
2. a round, plump, soft, heavy body having a heavy trunk
3. a malnutritioned, skinny, devitaminized body
4. a good, developed, stocky, muscular body

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Mesomorphy – a good, developed, stocky, muscular body.

 

89.  Cognitive development is influenced by such factors as culture, evolution, integration, and language. What does the Integration Factor imply?

A.      brain evolved to its larger size due to new selection pressures after the introduction of various tools

B.      Objects have meaning only with respect to the actions performed on them

C.      Knowledge is based heavily on images which stand for perceptual events

D.     cognitive maturation results from integration of acts and skills and what he called “blueprints” or plans of higher order combinations

 

Answer: D

Explanation: ‘Integration – Bruner believed that there are few simple, individual adult acts that cannot be performed by a child. He theorized that cognitive maturation results from integration of acts and skills and what he called “blueprints” or plans of higher order combinations. He asserted that language is the means by which such plans are generated, not the other way around.

 

90.  Taking into consideration that the Psychodynamic (Psychoanalytic) Model explains abnormality in terms of internal (intrapsychic, unconscious) dynamics at work within the individual, which of the following statements refers to Existential Models?

A.      the cognitive-behavioral position emphasizes the role of mental factors to explain abnormality, primarily through cognitive distortions (Beck) or irrational thinking (Ellis)

B.      Emphasize the role of personal meaning and coming to term with one’s inevitable death.

C.      the human being as an organism made up of numerous biologic and biochemical systems which are primarily responsible for determining adjustment, behavior, and disorders

D.      Abnormality is hypothesized to result when one is not treated or loved unconditionally, resulting in a failure to fully grow and self-actualize.

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Existential Models: emphasize the role of personal meaning and coming to term with one’s inevitable death.

 

91.  Taking into consideration that the practice of “trephining,” an “operation” performed by the medicine man, consisted of chipping a circular hole in an area of the skull (a “trephine”) which was believed to allow the evil spirit who was causing all the trouble to escape was specific for Stone Age, what civilization provided some of the earliest written evidence of treatment of disease and behavior disorders, including a detailed description of the treatment of wounds and other surgical operations?

A.      Babylonians

B.      Persians

C.      Greeks

D.     Ancient Egypt

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Ancient Egypt: Writings from the 16th century B.C. provide some of the earliest written evidence of treatment of disease and behavior disorders, including a detailed description of the treatment of wounds and other surgical operations.

 

92.  Exposure of a developing embryo or fetus to certain environmental factors can damage the developing organism or even cause death. What can HIV teratogen cause?

A.      facial deformities

B.      death of the newborn

C.      defective limbs

D.     mental retardation

 

Answer: B

Explanation: The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can result in birth defects, illness, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and death of the newborn.

 

93.  According to Masters& Johnson, there are four-stage cycles both in men and women regarding sexual responses. Which of the following statements is characterizing the RESOLUTION PHASE?

A.      A lessening of sexual tension as the person returns to the unstimulated state

B.      Initiated by whatever is stimulating to the person; heart, respiration, and blood pressure rates increase

C.      The tension prepares the body for orgasm.

D.     The body changes resulting from stimulation reaching maximum intensity.

 

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Resolution Phase – A lessening of sexual tension as the person returns to the unstimulated state.

 

94.  Taking into consideration that a mother takes MARIJUANA during the pregnancy period, what effect can this have on the fetus?

A.      crib death

B.      lower birth weights and pre-term births

C.      skill defects

D.     pre-term birth

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Other drug usage (marijuana, heroin, cocaine, amphetamines, barbiturates, etc.) compromises the health of both the mother and the baby and increases the risk of birth abnormalities, hyperirritability, crib death, spontaneous abortion (miscarriage), and still birth.

 

95.  Exposure of a developing embryo or fetus to certain environmental factors can damage the developing organism or even cause death. What impact can Maternal Diseases have on a delivering mother?

A.      can cause birth defects

B.      infant brain damage

C.      acquired immune deficiency syndrome

D.     can produce defects by crossing the placental barrier

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Maternal Diseases – Maternal diseases or infections can produce defects by crossing the placental barrier.

 

96.  In case of OPERANT CONDITIONING role of stimulus response sequence, the response is emitted. What statement about Conditioning Theorists out of the following ones is incorrect?

A.      Focus on the changes occurring in a child's psychological structure.

B.      They believe development proceeds in a less sequential and more random fashion

C.      Belief in stress variations in learning.

D.     Focus on processes that function all through the life cycle

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Stage theorists focus on the changes occurring in a child's psychological structure.

 

97.  Taking into consideration that a fetus has been exposed to X-rays for 6 months before his birth, what effect can this have on his health?

A.      Visual discrimination and memory skill problem

B.      retarded growth, mental retardation

C.      cerebral palsy

D.     mental retardation

 

Answer: D

Explanation: X-rays can cause retarded growth, mental retardation, and leukemia.

 

98.  Modeling” or the acquiring of learning through observation occurs through four processes.  What happens during the REPRODUCTION process?

A.      Learning does not occur by exposure alone

B.      The learner must have the capacity to recall his or her memory of the modeled behavior

C.       Reinforcement, either internal/self-reinforcement or external, is required for behavior to be retained and regularly manifested.

D.     The learner uses memory to guide an actual performance of the behavior.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Reproduction – The learner uses memory to guide an actual performance of the behavior.

 

99.  Parten’s six play categories emphasize the role of play in the child’s social world. What is UNOCCUPIED PLAY?

A.      Child plays beside others and mimics their play but does not interact with the others.

B.      Play involves social interaction with little or no organization.

C.      Child is not engaged and not interested in play.

D.     Play involves social interaction in a group with a sense of group identity and organized activity

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Unoccupied play – Child is not engaged and not interested in play.

 

100.                      Taking into consideration that the Statistical Model emphasizes the rarity or infrequency of a behavior or a trait as the primary determinant of mental illness, to what does the Genetic Model refer to?

A.      the human being as an organism made up of numerous biologic and biochemical systems which are primarily responsible for determining adjustment, behavior, and disorders

B.      the genetic transfer of mental illness or other characteristics from one generation to another

C.      A more general position emphasizing the similarities between medical and psychological practice.

D.     abnormality in terms of internal dynamics at work within the individual

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Genetic Model: the genetic transfer of mental illness or other characteristics from one generation to another.

 

101.                      Taking into consideration that the activity rate, rhythmicity, adaptability to new experiences, general mood, and intensity of response as products/factors of inherited temperament, how can be the slow-to-warm-up temper defined?

A.      low adaptability

B.      slow to accept new experiences

C.      quickly establishes routines

D.     has a low activity level

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Slow-to-warm-up – Is somewhat negative, has a low activity level, shows low adaptability and low mood intensity.

 

102.                      A habit is a stereotyped, predictable pattern of responding; a complex act that consists of several chains of S-R connections. How can be the Habit’s Incompatible stimuli defined?

 

A.      Repeatedly present the stimulus until the organism becomes tired of emitting the response.

B.      Present the stimulus at such a time that the response cannot occur.

C.      Present the stimulus that produces an undesirable response but present it at such a level that the undesired response is not emitted.

D.     the particular response that we choose to measure

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Incompatible Stimuli – Present the stimulus at such a time that the response cannot occur. Taking into consideration that the undesirable response cannot occur, another response will be emitted and then will replace the undesirable response.

 

103.                      James-Lange theory asserts that the individual’s perception of his physical reaction is the basis of his emotional experience. What is the Cohort effect?

A.      the phenomenon (in learning theory) of each response acting as the stimuli for the next response; used by behaviorists to explain complex behaviors

B.      refers to how one thinks, acts behaviorally, and feels about a given subject

C.      brain perceives the emotional stimuli at the same time that the body initiates an action

D.     the effect of a group of people being born at a certain time and being reared in a certain historical setting

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Cohort effect – the effect of a group of people being born at a certain time and being reared in a certain historical setting, i.e. career choices of baby boomers.

 

104.                      Taking into consideration that Social Theories specify how features of the social structure that is external to an individual produce observable patterns of drug-using behavior, how can be the Peer Cluster Theory defined?

A.      Suggests that small, identifiable peer clusters determine where, when, and how drugs will be used.

B.      Suggests that an individual's personality, environment, and behavior are inter-related and organized so as to develop a dynamic state designated as "problem-behavior proneness."

C.      Examine the individual's personality and psychopathology to explain drug abuse as a maladaptive behavior.

D.     Emphasizes the orderly progression from one drug to another as young people get more involved in drug use.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Peer Cluster Theory – Suggests that small, identifiable peer clusters determine where, when, and how drugs will be used.

 

105.                      There are 3 stages of adulthood defined by Erikson based on the Psycho-Social Crises that individuals encounter. What characterizes the late adulthood stage?

A.      Person formulates plans to leave a legacy

B.      Person learns to be intimate with others

C.      Person becomes aware of its boundaries and limits

D.     Person evaluates whether life has been worthwhile

 

Answer: D

Explanation: In late adulthood, the individual evaluates whether life has been worthwhile and has, therefore, been lived with integrity.

 

106.                      There are 3 stages of adulthood defined by Erikson based on the Psycho-Social Crises that individuals encounter. What characterizes the early adulthood stage?

A.      Person learns to be intimate with others

B.      Person formulates plans to leave a legacy

C.      Person evaluates whether life has been worthwhile

D.     Person becomes aware of its boundaries and limits

 

Answer: A

Explanation: In early adulthood, the task of the individual is to learn to be intimate with others. A lack of intimacy results in isolation, depending only on oneself.

 

107.                        At Late Adolescence, the abstract logical thinking is developed. What are the social characteristics that develop at this stage in an adolescent?

A.      Concerned with the larger world

B.      Identifies with group

C.      Identifies with same-sex parent

D.     Peer group and out-of-family relationships are important

 

Answer: A

Explanation: At Late Adolescence, adolescents are with the larger world.

 

108.                      Taking into consideration that the area of emotional expression is more active in females, which of the following statements is incorrect?

A.      Females are less likely to die or to develop physical or mental disorders.

B.      Males have longer bones and are approximately 10 percent taller than females.

C.      the area of physical expression is more active in males

D.     Men are less likely to die or to develop physical or mental disorders.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Females are less likely to die or to develop physical or mental disorders.

 

109.                      Taking into consideration that a person has the following symptoms: perceptual disorders, disrupted attentional impairment and he is disoriented, what diagnosis would be accurate for his disease?

A.      Dementia

B.      Mild mental retardation

C.      Severe mental retardation

D.     Delirium

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Delirium: perceptual disorders, disrupted attentional impairment and disoriented person.

110.                      There are four stages of attachment in human infants defined according to different life stages. What is the typical behavior for an infant from 7 months to 2 years?

A.      the child actively seeks close contact with the caretaker

B.      the infant uses signaling behavior to establish contact with others

C.      the infant begins to show a preference for a familiar person

D.     the relationship between the child and the caretaker evolves into a give-and-take relationship

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Active Proximity Seeking – From seven months to two years, the child actively seeks close contact with the caretaker.

 

111.                      Taking into consideration that Social Theories specify how features of the social structure that is external to an individual produce observable patterns of drug-using behavior, how can be the Life-Style Theories defined?

A.      Suggests that an individual's personality, environment, and behavior are inter-related and organized so as to develop a dynamic state designated as "problem-behavior proneness."

B.      Point out that groups of adolescent drug-users share unique and identifiable characteristics.

C.      Emphasizes the orderly progression from one drug to another as young people get more involved in drug use.

D.     Examine the individual's personality and psychopathology to explain drug abuse as a maladaptive behavior.

 

Answer: B
Explanation: Life-Style Theories – Point out that groups of adolescent drug-users share unique and identifiable characteristics.

 

112.                      Taking into consideration that a mother takes ASPIRIN during the pregnancy period, what effect can this have on the fetus?

A.      lower birth weights and pre-term births

B.      hyperirritability

C.      crib death

D.     skill defects

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Aspirin usage can cause intelligence, attention, and motor skill deficits.

 

113.                      Stage Theorists Believe development proceeds in a sequential, fixed manner. What do Learning Theorists emphasize?

A.       Emphasize internal motivations.

B.      Stress the predictable continuum of operations in effect at various stages.

C.      Believe development proceeds in a sequential, fixed manner.

D.     Emphasize external environmental forces.

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Learning Theorists emphasize external environmental forces.

 

114.                      Taking into consideration that Nosology is the branch of medicine dealing with the classification of disease, what is ENCODING?

A.      the fundamental constitution of an organism in terms of its hereditary factors

B.      a person always acts in such a way as to seek pleasure and to avoid pain

C.      expressing an entire sentence or phrase in one word, like a child’s command

D.     the mental process of converting external stimuli into meaningful forms (memory)

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Encoding – the mental process of converting external stimuli into meaningful forms (memory).

 

 

115.                      Exposure of a developing embryo or fetus to certain environmental factors can damage the developing organism or even cause death. What stamen about the teratogen types is incorrect?

A.      Genital herpes can cause lower birth weights

B.      Maternal Diseases – Maternal diseases or infections can produce defects by crossing the placental barrier.

C.      Rubella (German measles) and syphilis can cause birth defects.

D.     The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) can result in birth defects, illness, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), and death of the newborn

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Genital herpes can cause infant death or brain damage.

 

116.                      Schizophrenia involves a qualitative impairment in functioning, including in the most severe conditions a loss of contact with reality. Taking into consideration that a person suffers of schizophrenia and is in the Avolition phase, how can be his behavior characterized?

A.      not able to enjoy normally enjoyable experiences

B.      without will; no desires

C.      without a drive for achievement

D.     diminished thinking ability

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Avolition – without will; no desires

 

117.                      The first developmental stage of a human being is Infancy (birth-2 weeks). What is characteristic for this stage?

A.      Erikson’s trust vs. mistrust stage applies.

B.      Bonding/attachment takes place

C.      Children exhibit a gradual decrease in helplessness

D.     umbilical cord falling from the navel and the child regaining weight lost at birth

 

Answer: D

Explanation: This stage is marked by the umbilical cord falling from the navel and the child regaining weight lost at birth.

118.                      If Directives are assignments given by the therapist to be performed between sessions, what can the Ordeals include?

A.      identified patient is asked to pretend to have the symptomatic behavior and the other members are asked to pretend to help

B.      therapist offers an alternative, typically positive, view of the presenting problem

C.      tasks given that are not directly related to the problem

D.     therapist prescribes an ordeal that is equal or greater than the distress of the symptom itself

Answer: D

Explanation: Ordeals: therapist prescribes an ordeal that is equal or greater than the distress of the symptom itself.

 

119.                       If a therapist that uses the Ordeals technique prescribes an ordeal that is equal or greater than the distress of the symptom itself, what does Empowerment imply?

A.     The therapist utilizes interview skills to obtain an assessment and diagnosis of the family system

B.      When the family begins to change, the therapist warns them against changing too fast. This prepares the family for relapse.

C.      bolstering of the morale of the family. The therapist reframes the therapeutic context and symptom by focusing on the success they have had

D.     therapist offers an alternative, typically positive, view of the presenting problem

 

Answer: C

Explanation: Empowerment: bolstering of the morale of the family. The therapist reframes the therapeutic context and symptom by focusing on the success they have had.

 

 

120.                      Taking into consideration that the Psychodynamic (Psychoanalytic) Model explains abnormality in terms of internal (intrapsychic, unconscious) dynamics at work within the individual, which of the following statements refers to Client-Centered Model?

A.      Applies the laws of learning, motivation, and conditioning to explain abnormality in terms of behavioral excesses and deficits.

B.      Abnormality is hypothesized to result when one is not treated or loved unconditionally, resulting in a failure to fully grow and self-actualize.

C.      the cognitive-behavioral position emphasizes the role of mental factors to explain abnormality, primarily through cognitive distortions (Beck) or irrational thinking (Ellis)

D.     the human being as an organism made up of numerous biologic and biochemical systems which are primarily responsible for determining adjustment, behavior, and disorders

 

Answer: B

Explanation: Client-Centered Model: abnormality is hypothesized to result when one is not treated or loved unconditionally, resulting in a failure to fully grow and self-actualize.

 

121.                      Null Hypothesis: no significant difference found between subjects' scores on the communication scale with respect to their success in forming friendships as measured by a sociogram. To what does the Simple Random Sample Technique refer to?

A.      Representative items/subjects are divided into parts (grades, ages, income, test scores, etc.)

B.      Parts that go together are researched/studied together (neighborhood, class, etc.).

C.      systematic rule of selection or predictable interval is employed

D.     each item/subject in a sample is considered to have an equal, independent chance of being selected "into" the sample

 

Answer: D

Explanation: the Simple Random Sample Technique: each item/subject in a sample is considered to have an equal, independent chance of being selected "into" the sample

 

122.                      Taking into consideration that Jim suffers of sleep disturbances, what neuro-transmitter has that effect on him?

A.      Serotonin

B.      Epinephrine and norepinephrine

C.       Acetylcholine

D.     Dopamine

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Serotonin – Associated with sleep disturbances.

 

123.                      Taking into consideration that Sienna was diagnosed with Paranoid Personality disorder, what patterns characterized her behavior?

A.      disinterested in social relationships, socially apathetic

B.      a pattern of acute discomfort in close relationships, cognitive/perceptual distortions, and behavioral eccentricities

C.      a pattern of disregard for and violation of the right’s of others

D.     a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness such that other’s motives are interpreted as malevolent

 

Answer: D

Explanation: Paranoid Personality disorder: a pattern of distrust and suspiciousness such that other’s motives are interpreted as malevolent

 

124.                      Gould (1978) links stage and crisis in his developmental transformations approach: false assumptions (myths) are challenged and transformed at every stage. What is the development at 35-43?

A.      Questioning identity and roles

B.      May experience dissatisfaction in career or marriage

C.      Awareness of mortality

D.     A general mellowing evolves with an increased tolerance

 

Answer: C

Explanation: 35 – 43: Awareness of mortality. Goals are evaluated and realigned

 

125.                      Conditioned Response (CR) is the learned response to a conditioned stimulus. How can ACQUISITION be defined?

A.      the period during which the organism learns the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response

B.      a negative conditioned stimulus is paired with a pleasant stimulus that elicits a response that is incompatible with the unwanted conditioned response

C.       learning to make distinctions among similar stimuli

D.     the recurrence of the previously extinguished conditioned response following a rest period

Answer: A

Acquisition – the period during which the organism learns the association between the conditioned stimulus and the conditioned response.

 

 

 

126.                      Taking into consideration that a person suffers of a disorder conceptualized as a clinically-significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that occurs in an individual and is associated with distress, disability, or an increased risk of suffering, what type of disorder is he suffering of?

A.      Anxiety

B.      Depression

C.      Mental disorder

D.     Turner’s syndrome

 

Answer: C

Explanation: The definition of a mental disorder presented in the Introduction to the DSM-IV conceptualizes a disorder as a clinically-significant behavioral or psychological syndrome or pattern that occurs in an individual and is associated with distress, disability, or an increased risk of suffering.

 

127.                      A baby makes a small sound; mom smiles and says words that sound like the infant’s; this continues until the infant makes a sound that is a recognized word. How is this process called?

A.      Successive approximation

B.      Successive reasoning

C.      UCS

D.     UCR

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Successive approximation – increments of change toward a desired behavior are reinforced, thereby shaping the response into the desired behavior.

 

128.                      Taking into consideration that Social Theories specify how features of the social structure that is external to an individual produce observable patterns of drug-using behavior, how can be the Political Theory defined?

A.      drug use is an aberrant phenomenon afflicting otherwise healthy people

B.      Emphasizes the orderly progression from one drug to another as young people get more involved in drug use.

C.      Believes that each individual has the right to use drugs as he/she sees fit and that society should have a hands-off policy.

D.     Examine the individual's personality and psychopathology to explain drug abuse as a maladaptive behavior.

 

Answer: C

Explanation: Political Theory – Believes that each individual has the right to use drugs as he/she sees fit and that society should have a hands-off policy.

129.                      If in Step 1 (STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS OF THE PERSONALITY), the client examine the content and functioning of the three ego states, what does the Crossed transaction of Step 2 (TRANSACTIONAL ANALYSIS) include?

A.      specific ego state sends a message, a specific state responds

B.      the overt message is different from the covert message

C.      Examines transactions that result in negative feelings

D.     a sent message receives an unexpected response

Answer: D

Explanation: Crossed – a sent message receives an unexpected response (adult/child transaction)

130.          Considering that Social Class Membership is the occupation and income of parents, education of parents, place and type of residence, ethnic background, how can Role Perception be defined?

A.      the individual's perception of self as a leader, follower, isolate, as well as the degree to which the individual’s perception is in accord with the way others see him

B.      relationships with peers and faculty

C.      group goals and values, special opportunities or influences

D.     the degree to which an individual or his/her family has come under any particular influence

 

Answer: A
Explanation: Role Perception – describes the individual's perception of self as a leader, follower, isolate, as well as the degree to which the individual’s perception is in accord with the way others see him.

 

131.          If in the 4-10 years (Fantasy) of a human being’s life needs are dominant; role-playing in fantasy is important, what is characteristic for the Interest stage?

A.      Abilities are given more weight and job requirements are considered

B.      developing a realistic self-concept, and learning more about various opportunities

C.      Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered

D.     Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Interest (11 - 12 years) – Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities.

132.          If in the 4-10 years (Fantasy) of a human being’s life needs are dominant; role-playing in fantasy is important, what is characteristic for the Capacity stage?

A.      Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities

B.      developing a realistic self-concept, and learning more about various opportunities

C.      Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered

D.     Abilities are given more weight and job requirements are considered

Answer: D

Explanation: Capacity (13 - 14 years) – Abilities are given more weight and job requirements are considered

 

133.          If in the 4-10 years (Fantasy) of a human being’s life needs are dominant; role-playing in fantasy is important, what is characteristic for the Exploration Life Stage?

A.      Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities

B.      Abilities are given more weight and job requirements are considered

C.      Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered

D.     developing a realistic self-concept, and learning more about various opportunities

Answer: D

Explanation: Exploration Life Stage Tasks (14 – 24 years) Implementing a vocational preference, developing a realistic self-concept, and learning more about various opportunities.

 

134.          If in the 4-10 years (Fantasy) of a human being’s life needs are dominant; role-playing in fantasy is important, what is characteristic for the Tentative Life Stage?

A.      Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered

B.      Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities

C.      Abilities are given more weight and job requirements are considered

D.     developing a realistic self-concept, and learning more about various opportunities

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Tentative (14 - 15 years) – Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered; tentative choices are made and tried out in fantasy, discussion, courses, work.

135.          If at the Tentative Stage (14 - 15 years) – Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered and  tentative choices are made and tried out in fantasy, discussion, courses, work, what is the TASK of this stage?

A.      Specifying a vocational preference

B.      Implementing a vocational preference

C.      Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities

D.     Crystallizing a vocational preference

Answer: D

Explanation: Tentative Stage TASK: Task: Crystallizing a vocational preference.

136.          If at the Tentative Stage (14 - 15 years) – Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered and  tentative choices are made and tried out in fantasy, discussion, courses, work, what is the TASK of the Transition stage?

A.      Crystallizing a vocational preference

B.      Implementing a vocational preference

C.      Likes are the major determinant of aspirations and activities

D.     Specifying a vocational preference

Answer: D

Explanation: Transition stage: Specifying a vocational preference

 

137.          If at the Tentative Stage (14 - 15 years) – Needs, interests, capacities, values, and opportunities are all considered and  tentative choices are made and tried out in fantasy, discussion, courses, work, what is characteristic for the Trial (with) Little Commitment Stage?

A.     Finding opportunity to do desired work, learning to relate to others, consolidation and advancement, making occupational position secure, and settling down into a permanent position

B.      Having made a place in the world of work, the concern is how to hold on to it

C.      doing things one has always wanted to do

D.     job is located and is tried out as a potential for life work

Answer: D
Explanation: Trial (with) Little Commitment (22 - 24 years): A seemingly appropriate occupation having been found, a first job is located and is tried out as a potential for life work.

 

 

138.                      Considering that in Step 1 (STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS OF THE PERSONALITY), the client examine the content and functioning of the three ego states. What does the Ulterior transaction of Step 2 (TRANSACTIONAL ANALYSIS) include?

A.      the overt message is different from the covert message

B.      specific ego state sends a message, a specific state responds

C.      a sent message receives an unexpected response

D.     Examines transactions that result in negative feelings

Answer: A

Explanation: Ulterior – the overt message is different from the covert message.

 

139.                      In case that a counselor uses the Agoraphobia technique with a client, what does this procedure basically include?

A.     Aversive therapy

B.      the chaining together of a sequence of behaviors to produce a more complex behavior

C.      Graded exposure and flooding

D.     Systematic desensitization for simple phobias

 

Answer: C

Explanation: Agoraphobia – Graded exposure and flooding.

140.                      A therapist is modifying his language, tone, or style in order to join with the client (Accommodation). What does the Maintenance Structural Technique include?

A.      use of clarification or amplification of communication to reinforce individuals or subsystems

B.      the adoption of the clients’ communication style by the therapist

C.      techniques that directly impact the family structure

D.     act of the therapist focusing or highlighting certain behaviors in order to increase the functional aspects of the family structure

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Maintenance is the act of the therapist focusing or highlighting certain behaviors in order to increase the functional aspects of the family structure.

 

 

 

141.                      According to the theory of motivational processes, man is basically a survivor and responds in such a way as to insure his continued existence. What is the learned association between the drive and the behavior that reduces stimulation?

A.      Habit

B.      Drive

C.      Arousal

D.     Anxiety

 

Answer: A

Explanation: According to the theory, stimulation associated with any of these variables arouses behavior that aims to reduce or eliminate the stimulation. This learned association between the drive and the behavior that reduces it is called a habit.

 

142.                      A child plays beside others and mimics their play but does not interact with the others. How is this called?

A.      Solitary play

B.      Associative play

C.      Unoccupied play

D.     Parallel play

 

Answer: D
Explanation: Parallel play – Child plays beside others and mimics their play but does not interact with the others.

 

 

143.                      Taking into consideration that the Psychodynamic (Psychoanalytic) Model explains abnormality in terms of internal (intrapsychic, unconscious) dynamics at work within the individual, which of the following statements refers to Systemic Model?

A.      Emphasize the role of personal meaning and coming to term with one’s inevitable death.

B.      the cognitive-behavioral position emphasizes the role of mental factors to explain abnormality, primarily through cognitive distortions (Beck) or irrational thinking (Ellis)

C.      Argues that disorders occur in systems (e.g. the family) rather than in individuals and emphasizes concepts of homoeostasis, individual roles within systems, and poor communication patterns

D.     the human being as an organism made up of numerous biologic and biochemical systems which are primarily responsible for determining adjustment, behavior, and disorders

 

Answer: C

Explanation: Systemic Model: argues that disorders occur in systems (e.g. the family) rather than in individuals and emphasizes concepts of homoeostasis, individual roles within systems, and poor communication patterns.

 

144.                      Taking into consideration that language acquisition to be the chief milestone in cognitive development, at what stage of cognitive development is a human being for which language provides the means for representing experience and for transforming it?

A.      Symbolic mode

B.      Enactive mode

C.      Iconic mode

D.     Emphatic mode

 

Answer: A
Explanation: Symbolic mode – Language provides the means for representing experience and for transforming it.

 

145.                      The concept of time refers to the understanding that events take place one after the other. To what does CAUSALITY refer to?

A.      the understanding that an object can return to its former shape

B.      the understanding that the child can cause something to happen

C.       drawing appropriate conclusions from facts

D.     the quality of focusing on a key feature rather than on the whole object

 

Answer: A

Explanation: Causality refers to the understanding that the child can cause something to happen.

 

146.                      A teenage mother gives birth to a hyperirritable baby. What might have most probably caused this problem?

A.      Aspirin use

B.      Rubella

C.      AIDS

D.     Marijuana

 

Answer: D

Explanation:  Other drug usage (marijuana, heroin, cocaine, amphetamines, barbiturates, etc.) compromises the health of both the mother and the baby and increases the risk of birth abnormalities, hyperirritability, crib death, spontaneous abortion (miscarriage), and still birth.

 

147.                      Taking into consideration that Nosology is the branch of medicine dealing with the classification of disease, how can be EEG defined according to it?

A.      the graphic measure of the alpha waves of the brain

B.      the biological condition directing behavior toward a goal

C.      the classification of mental retardation that is caused by an extra chromosome; sometimes called mongolism

D.     the automatic repetition by someone of words spoken in his or her presence

 

Answer: A

Explanation: EEG or Electroencephalogram – the graphic measure of the alpha waves of the brain.

• Home      Try Now       Sample Questions       Screenshots       Contact Us

Copyright ©2000-2012 CCA License Review counselor Education and Testing Centers. All Rights Reserved.